If I recall historia correctly the use "of the people" root to refer to a distinction language can be traced back to Christian missionaries and clergimen of medieval times who needed to translate religious teachings from latin to the common tongue.
Sure, but Italy also has the Vatican in it, and I've heard that place had and continues to have quite a lot of influence... Also, Italy was unified one before, the same cannot be said about Germany. (No, the HRE does not count)
4 Comments
lvxferre@mander.xyz · 47 pts · 2y
takeheart@lemmy.world · 2 pts · 1y
If I recall historia correctly the use "of the people" root to refer to a distinction language can be traced back to Christian missionaries and clergimen of medieval times who needed to translate religious teachings from latin to the common tongue.
lvxferre@mander.xyz · 1 pts · 1y
lurch@sh.itjust.works · -8 pts · 2y
Pirasp@lemmy.world · 24 pts · 2y
It usually isn't this bad with neighbouring countries though. The reason is the late unification of Germany of course.
lemmington_steele@lemmy.world · 11 pts · 2y
I'm not sure late unification is necessarily the determing factor here. e.g. look at Italy
Pirasp@lemmy.world · 9 pts · 2y
Sure, but Italy also has the Vatican in it, and I've heard that place had and continues to have quite a lot of influence... Also, Italy was unified one before, the same cannot be said about Germany. (No, the HRE does not count)