Three Millennia Ago, Humans May Have Spoken Thousands More Languages Than We Have Today, During a Linguistic 'Golden Age'

https://www.smithsonianmag.com/smart-news/three-millennia-ago-humans-may-have-spoken-thousands-more-languages-than-we-have-today-during-a-linguistic-golden-age-180989197/

52 points · 8 comments · view on lemmy.world

8 Comments

LibertyLizard@slrpnk.net · 17 pts · 31d (1 reply)

Most people have no idea how many languages and dialects were exterminated as imperialism and nationalism emerged in the last few hundred years. The very concept of a national language that is the same across a broad national territory is novel. And it was created through violence.

LurkingLuddite@piefed.social · 9 pts · 31d

Call me ignorant if you wish, but unifying communication is very much not one of the ills brought about by imperialism. Not to mention, basic economics and technological advancement did A LOT of the work, too. Much like how we now have unified time zones around the world. That wasn't imperialism. That was technical advancement enabling a much broader view for economics (as much as global economics can be unentangled from the imperialism that accelerated it, anyways).

While culture should never be erased, hard lines between now-connected people will dissipate over time.

farmgineer@nord.pub · 4 pts · 31d

Their modeling suggests

Psh, it's only a model.

We know proto families and such exist going back through to PIE and others. We know that languages split off of those and, if I'm remembering correctly, proto-Germanic itself would hit in their 0 +/- 1000 range easily.

After we domesticated plants and animals, however, the planet’s population ballooned—and so did the number of languages.

This feels counterintuitive to me. We had small groups of hunter-gatherers that interacted with other groups far less often (at least presumably) before agriculture. If people generally don't speak like their grandparents today, why wouldn't that be the case then? I guess one could argue that fewer people meant less drift, but i don't know about that.

After agriculture (and arguably even before it in some places), we had more permanent societies with structure, population, governance, etc. Why would this be the place that language drift/division starts happening rather than the opposite?

I'm not a trained anthropologist or anything; it just feels weird to me.

LurkingLuddite@piefed.social · 3 pts · 31d (2 replies)

A golden age ... where people couldn't communicate across vast regions without scholarly levels of knowledge...

We really need to reconsider what we're calling a, "golden age"...

Swedneck@discuss.tchncs.de · -1 pts · 28d (1 reply)

who says they couldn't communicate? People can learn many languages.
The fact that you assume this kinda just shows how we've regressed.

LurkingLuddite@piefed.social · 1 pts · 27d

Do you know how common communication was across the world back then vs today? Do you think telegrams, let alone cross-ocean voyages, were commonplace 3000 years ago? How little do you understand of history?

MonkderVierte@lemmy.zip · 2 pts · 31d

Hah. Back up to 1900, each village here had their own dialect. Nothing of value was lost with the hobasele (ant).

homesweethomeMrL@lemmy.world · 2 pts · 31d

Meow meow golden age meow