tomalley8342

u/tomalley8342@lemmy.world
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The way the rules are being enforced as well as who is enforcing the rules are just as important as the rules themselves IMO, if any of the above 3 change it should be made aware to the users. In this case idk if it would even be condemnation, considering she doesn't seem to mind being a tankie at all.

It's different, but it doesn't make one coercion and one not coercion, if, again, going back to the original point, the goal is to get the consumers' money. Not my goal. The goal of the creator of these works. These works are intended for commercial sale. The base assumption is that the creator of these works intend, and are driven to, get the consumer's money. Or is that the part you are having trouble understanding?

You are objecting when you are disengaging from these works, are you not? Unless, going back to a previous question, you are the type to disengage with works you are completely satisfied with?

: to feel distaste for something

This is the definition for object I mean. If you wanted to pull out the dictionary thing again.

to compel to an act or choice

In both cases, if the person needs what the other person is witholding, he is compelled to meet their demands, no?

Ask direct complete questions

"Even if your boss simply ignores you, the assumption is that there is a reason underneath, no?" and "And if you need what your boss has bad enough to change your behavior, you are coerced into it, no matter if the demand was properly communicated (proposition) or not (ignoring), no?" are complete questions, in fact, they are straight up yes or no questions, the simplest of them all.

Why is it not coercion when you disengage with a work? Obviously you disengage for a particular reason, and if that reason no longer applicable, you would no longer disengage right? Or do you just randomly disengage with works that you are completely satisfied with?

you can talk to that strawman all on your own…

In your own words, could you explain what you believe the strawman is, and why it does not apply in your case?

A boycott, by definition is an attempt to punitively coerce others.

Punitively coerce by witholding your sale. The same sale that would have been witheld by your disengagement.

If your employer attempted to coerce you into physical relationship to “earn” a promotion, would that feel different to you than them simply overlooking you for said promotion?

The issue here is that the condition is unrelated to your employment. The end of life plans of the video game is directly relevant to whether you might want to purchase said game or not.

would that feel different to you

Are you trying to say that the difference is just vibes?